Hiv & Aids?
I would like serious feedback on this question. I remembered when the first word broke on HIV back in the impulsive eighties. It was the gay men and IV drug users that were the first group to die from it.
If two men who do not hold HIV come together and have sex vs. a man and a woman that have anal sex. Which group is the most of at risk. Please single mature people respond to this serious press.
Answers: I understand that this for whatever use is a serious question, and while this forum is not necessarily the best place for a serious question, I will do my best to answer it next to all candor. A lot has be learned about HIV/AIDS surrounded by the last few years. Your question is, as i follow it, about the relative risk factors, of heterosexual anal intercourse, and homosexual anal intercourse. With your statement that not a soul has HIV/AIDS in the two examples you give, there is obviously no risk of contracting the disease. Having sex, anal or otherwise does not create the disease. Now the subsequent logical question is, who is most at risk, if one of the partners have aids? Here are the factors as they are currently understood. HIV/AIDS is passed to another by direct blood/blood, abrade tissue to blood, or semen, or abraded tissue to abraded tissue. There are other ways, however for the purpose of this interview, those are the main modes of transmission. In this valise, the semen of the one ejaculating is an active source of infection. If the one delivery the semen has an abrasion in the rectum, which is virtually assured by the style, because of the nature of the anal intercourse, the highest risk factor is for the being having their rectum inseminated. If the situation is reversed, thereby the rectum being infected, and the penis not, at hand is much less chance for inoculation, as the penis is not other abraded, therefor there is smaller quantity chance of infection. This is also true for vaginal intercourse, except that the female is more apt to infect the manly as the vaginal fluids in some cases has be shown to have the complete HIV/AIDS viruses. I do not know if this help you, or if you have other more specific questions. If this is just about more than idle curiosity, you should not hesitate to contact your physician, and consult near them in a more detailed basis.
teh 2 men bc the disease is basically found in majority of men quoted from CDC.
the only pretext the hetero group would be at risk bc the man sleeps with a man or is bi.. or a prostitute is at high risk bc her risky behaviors most expected to get infected by, once again, a man who is HIV positive..
its a man disease and somehow gay men have more bc its a life-size proportion of men that have it.. i think if women have it and was considered a woman disease.. and lets voice men were naturally born to close to other men.. itll be more infected in women who were lesbians .. u see the difference?
They are at equal risk because the virus does not really supply a darn! The gay community has recently see an upsurge in HIV infections after getting it much under control for frequent years. But the virus goes where it get put.
This may give you an overall view of HIV
I would deliberate neither, as long as the man and woman are also free of the virus. HIV doesn't discriminate and anyone is at risk to HIV, whether you're gay or straight.
Related Questions...
If two men who do not hold HIV come together and have sex vs. a man and a woman that have anal sex. Which group is the most of at risk. Please single mature people respond to this serious press.
Answers: I understand that this for whatever use is a serious question, and while this forum is not necessarily the best place for a serious question, I will do my best to answer it next to all candor. A lot has be learned about HIV/AIDS surrounded by the last few years. Your question is, as i follow it, about the relative risk factors, of heterosexual anal intercourse, and homosexual anal intercourse. With your statement that not a soul has HIV/AIDS in the two examples you give, there is obviously no risk of contracting the disease. Having sex, anal or otherwise does not create the disease. Now the subsequent logical question is, who is most at risk, if one of the partners have aids? Here are the factors as they are currently understood. HIV/AIDS is passed to another by direct blood/blood, abrade tissue to blood, or semen, or abraded tissue to abraded tissue. There are other ways, however for the purpose of this interview, those are the main modes of transmission. In this valise, the semen of the one ejaculating is an active source of infection. If the one delivery the semen has an abrasion in the rectum, which is virtually assured by the style, because of the nature of the anal intercourse, the highest risk factor is for the being having their rectum inseminated. If the situation is reversed, thereby the rectum being infected, and the penis not, at hand is much less chance for inoculation, as the penis is not other abraded, therefor there is smaller quantity chance of infection. This is also true for vaginal intercourse, except that the female is more apt to infect the manly as the vaginal fluids in some cases has be shown to have the complete HIV/AIDS viruses. I do not know if this help you, or if you have other more specific questions. If this is just about more than idle curiosity, you should not hesitate to contact your physician, and consult near them in a more detailed basis.
So sick of the Stigma just about HSV2?
teh 2 men bc the disease is basically found in majority of men quoted from CDC.
the only pretext the hetero group would be at risk bc the man sleeps with a man or is bi.. or a prostitute is at high risk bc her risky behaviors most expected to get infected by, once again, a man who is HIV positive..
its a man disease and somehow gay men have more bc its a life-size proportion of men that have it.. i think if women have it and was considered a woman disease.. and lets voice men were naturally born to close to other men.. itll be more infected in women who were lesbians .. u see the difference?
Can anyone please bestow me some possible reason for this?
They are at equal risk because the virus does not really supply a darn! The gay community has recently see an upsurge in HIV infections after getting it much under control for frequent years. But the virus goes where it get put.
This may give you an overall view of HIV
Is in that a style to treat molluscum contagiosum at home?
I would deliberate neither, as long as the man and woman are also free of the virus. HIV doesn't discriminate and anyone is at risk to HIV, whether you're gay or straight.
Related Questions...